AzAtty:......I find offensive a law that allows someone else to dispose of my property rights.
Certainly, if you do something to get killed, that is your right and you should be able to waive your right to sue. But for several hundred years the law has recognized that injuries to one person also affect other people, and those people should have rights to hold a tortfeasor responsible for the damages that affect them. It's not a matter of fees or lawyers creating new claims. The claims have existed for centuries.
Be careful where you go with this AZ. This expansion of the view of "survivors" rights is relatively recent, and it is the best argument I've ever seen for the warning that I just posted to my family.
IMHO that right simply doesn't exist in the way you have postulated. Oh I am well aware that courts have found such a thing. But this "it takes a village" argument is so distasteful to me that I devised my own response to those around me who might think of such a thing.
There's a simple solution: require the "grieving widow" to waive wrongful death claims before the Darwinist gets on the boat. She CAN do that.
No, she can't. Because "she" is not alone. My sister could raise a similar claim. As could my mother, father, etc. Your "solution" isn't, because it requires an unlimited pool of people to potentially waive that claim.
For example, my employer might, under your view, be able to raise such a claim because he would be deprived of my contribution to his enterprise! If I was to be working on a patent, for example, at the time of my demise he might have a claim even superior (in terms of damages) to that of my spouse! That patent might be worth billions.
Ah, yes, the old "lawyers are officers of the court and shouldn't be in the legislature" argument. Let me guess...income taxes are unconstitutional too, right? (THAT little bit of extremist drivel has been soundly trounced by the United States Supreme Court--income tax is constitutional.) Separation of powers would only be implicated if the lawyer were exercising judicial power.
That is simply not true. The oath of judicial office that an attorney takes requires the attorney to first respond as an officer of the court, and secondarily in their other professional interest.
A lawyer does not hold an office within the judicial branch.
False - an attorney who is admitted before the bar serves at the pleasure of the state supreme court. They are, legally, officers of the court. You know this - you took the oath, you've read the code. Your Supreme Court has disbarred attorneys - effectively, "firing" them. If you serve at the pleasure of the court, you are an officer of the court. Whether you are directly compensated by the court is not relavent.
I've read enough disbarment proceedings to understand how it works AZ, and I have investigated this in significant depth.
BTW, I don't expect separation of powers to mean anything any more. We screwed ourselves as a nation - permanently - back when we destroyed our bicameral federal legislature.
BTW, the 16th amendment was indeed properly ratified, some people's claim to the contrary notwithstanding.