Creation vs. Evolution

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Bruce3:
well apes have 24 pairs and we humans have 23, reason being one pair has fused to another. you can even see what chromosome number pair fused together. we know this because of DNA markers so to speak.
http://www.gate.net/~rwms/hum_ape_chrom.html

Right, that's the problem. I understand how the chromosome count could change, but I don't understand how this could happen while maintaining reproductive ability.
 
While I gather that all the proof is no yet in, it is thought that modern and Cro-Magnon had the same number of chromosomes while Neanderthals had one more, apparently due to the combination of two chromosomes into one for modern man. This likely would prevent natural combination of sperm and egg.

Mitochondrial DNA from the bones of Neanderthals compared to that of living people from various continents, shows that the Neanderthals are about equidistant to people the other continents. This works against the belief that there was some interbreeding between Neanderthals and early modern humans living in Europe. Moreover, the common ancestor to Neanderthals and modern man has been shown to have lived about a half million years ago, well before the most recent common mitochondrial DNA ancestor of modern humans, suggesting that Neanderthals did not contribute to the modern human gene pool.
 
Thalassamania:
Neanderthals did not contribute to the modern human gene pool.


yes, that is the latest view
 
Perhaps I was focusing too much on humans in my query.

At some point as a species evolves into another, there is a point where the number of chromosomes change...somewhere, at some point, I would assume, a mother has a different number of chromosomes than their offspring. How does this offspring (which is now genetically incompatible with the rest of their former species) procreate?
 
mislav:
Sure about that? I'm more inclined to believe the mix view. I guess we'll see what comes out of it eventually...

http://www.world-science.net/othernews/061012_neanderthal.htm

keep in mind that if Neanderthals mixed with humans, they did so 50,000 to 30,000 years ago (i.e. very recently and for a relatively short time) and only in Europe and the Middle East and a bit of Western Asia (Neanderthals did not live elsewhere)

thus, you would find Neanderthal genes in European populations, Middle East population, and perhaps some Western Asiatic populations .... and not in African, Australian, Asian, and North American populations

and yet, the DNA of humans across the globe is very uniform, with no real DNA differences at all amongst all human "races"

did Neanderthals interbreed with humans? possibly

did those offspring then contribute to the human gene pool? hihgly unlikely, or in such small numbers that it never affected the species gene pool

i think the best evidence suggests that the interbreeding never took place

from an anthropological point of view, would the Homo sapiens males have tolerated Neanderthal males mating with H.s. females?

i highly doubt it

the reverse is not necessarily true (but that would have affected Neanderthal DNA, not human DNA), which is what the study you cite appears to find
 
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