triton94949:
You are going to run into a problem with defining adultery.
You are probably thinking that when a man whose lawfully wedded wife is in a coma or vegetative state for 15 years, and he takes another common law woman and has 2 kids by her, that this is somehow adultery. If you read the Old Testament, adultery has nothing to do with that. You need to search and look in the timeframe of Moses (1400 BCE) regarding the origin of the Hebrew term for adultery.
If you want to flash forward to Jesus's (Jehosua Nazareti) time at 33 AD, then you have the same issue of definition, since He was referring to the older law of Moses. What Jesus was really saying was to keep your thoughts pure. He was not condemning plural marriage nor remarriage. Today plural marriage is a modern taboo, however if you go to the Middle East you see Arabs still practicing it all over. It has been practiced on the Earth for thousands of years.
Also, in Jesus' time, physicians (like St. Luke in the Gospels) did not put feeding tubes into comatous or vegetative victims. In Jesus' time, your wife was usually with you, your companion, and not comatous or vegetative in a hospital bed for 15 years.
I'll check on the Hebrew and greek words used.
Gen 2:24 "Therefore a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife and they shall become one flesh".
Notice that, in this translation, at least, it says wife not wives.
Cor 6:16 "Or do you not know that he who is joined to a harlot is one body with her? For "the two" he says, "shall become one flesh". "
1 Cor 7:2 "Nevertheless, because of sexual immorality, let each man have his own wife, and let each woman have her own husband"
1 Cor 7:5 "Do not deprive one another except with concent for a time, that you may give yourselves to fasting and prayer; and come together again so that Satan does not tempt you because of your lack of self control."
1 Cor 7:8 "But I say this to the unmarried and to the widows: It is good for them to remain even as I am; 9 but if they cannot exercise self-control, let them marry. For it is better to marry than to burn with passion."
Again notice, wife rather than wives. There are many many more references and if it's mistranslated then it's mistranslated consistantly and I see nothing to suggest that marriage is plural. Also notice that temptation when being neglected is recognized but acting because of it is not condoned. I'm afraid that it would require more than a mistranlation of the word adultary to make your arguement valid. I think, it would require rewritting the whole Bible. Maybe Arabs practice plural marriage but Christians and Jews do not.
Of course my arguement is only that 10 years ago when he took up another woman outside of marriage that, IMO, he disqualified himself from speaking as Terri's husband. I realize that you can't apply logic to law but there seems, at the very least, to exist an obvious possibility for a conflict of interest. Also, since paligamy is illegal in this country (regardless of what Arabs do) I would think (yes, I know that doesn't work with law) that there would be a legal arguement here too. Isn't taking another woman a violation of even our legal marriage contract and grounds for devorce? I wonder if a sharp prosequtor might not even be able to charge him with paligimy or is that ruled out only by the lack of a second legal marriage?
If I was Terri's father I would have first worked for a devorce for her since there seems to be both legal and scriptural grounds. Again realizing that logic doesn't apply well to law but I think that it's a "loophole" in the law that would even allow him to retain guardianship on the basis of being a husband after entering into another psuedo marriage.